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Code d'Examen: ST0-147
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 253 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.4 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.5 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.6 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.11 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-253
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix )
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.3 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.9 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.10 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.15 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-149
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 Windows Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.3 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.15 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-406
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x)
Questions et réponses: 173 Q&As

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NO.1 Which metadata filters are available for collecting from Microsoft Exchange?
A. received date
B. sent date
C. modified date
D. creation date
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-406 examen   250-406   250-406   250-406   250-406

NO.2 The mail server used by the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x has been changed to
a new
server during an organization's Exchange migration. New hold notices are now failing.
Which configuration changes should be made in the system area?
A. in the Email Servers page, update SMTP Server host name
B. in the General page, update SMTP Server host name
C. in the General page, update Confirmation Server host name
D. in the General page, update Admin Server host name
Answer: B

Symantec   250-406 examen   250-406

NO.3 Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x needs to run with an account that has read
permissions
for the archives in Symantec Enterprise Vault.
Which service should have credentials changed to enable this?
A. EsaPstCrawlerService
B. EsaApplicationService
C. EsaEvCrawlerService
D. EsaEvRetrieverService
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-406   250-406 examen

NO.4 A Case Team is using Languages in Advanced Search to identify all documents that (1) contain
mostly
Spanish language (60 percent or more), and (2) contain some English language. The language
predominance threshold for this case was set to 60 percent. How should this search be formulated?
A. Select "Must Contain All of These" for Spanish and "Must Contain At Least One of These" for
English.
B. Select "Must Contain All of These" for both Spanish (predominant) and English.
C. Select "Must Contain All of These" for both Spanish and English.
D. Select "Must Contain All of These" for Spanish and English and "Must Not Contain Any of These"
for
English (predominant).
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-406   certification 250-406   250-406

NO.5 A Case User needs to run a search with 20 terms. The Case User has the option of including
these
terms on one line or placing each of the 20 terms on a separate query row.
What are two advantages of placing the terms on separate query rows? (Select two.)
A. The user can create a saved search and choose to Highlight Terms if the terms are on separate
query
rows.
B. The user can view the terms' stemmed variations if the terms are on separate query rows.
C. The user can create a search report that includes more specific details about each search term.
D. The user can use Search Filters to view the list of words and corresponding documents hit.
E. The user can de-select stemming for each term if the terms are on separate query rows.
Answer: C,D

Symantec examen   certification 250-406   250-406   certification 250-406   250-406 examen

NO.6 The Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x should use separate Confirmation and Admin
servers
for the Legal Hold module for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. to avoid a disparity in the number of custodians allocated for the Legal Hold and Collections
modules
B. to provide a secure Legal Hold environment
C. to use a separate Confirmation and Admin server as required by the Legal Hold module
D. to minimize processing interruptions of either the Confirmation or Admin server
E. to meet Clearwell System Requirements that the Confirmation server uses a different OS than the
Admin server
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-406   250-406 examen   certification 250-406

NO.7 A new data source has been added to the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x and
has
completed pre-processing without exceptions. No additional data has been added to the source
since the
completion of pre-processing. The Case Team needs all data in the source indexed for the case.
Which steps are required when processing the data source?
A. select the source and configure processing options using the property browser
B. select the source, apply the necessary date range filter, and process with or without discovery
C. select the source and configure the processing filters at the source level
D. select the source and process with or without discovery
Answer: D

Symantec   250-406 examen   250-406   250-406 examen   250-406 examen

NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x System Manager needs to collect data from a file
share
that includes previously collected and stored custodian data. During the collection, the System
Manager
must assign the correct custodian to the data. The exhibit displays the Directory structure for the
stored
data.
Which value should be placed in the custodian path in the collection properties to ensure that the
folder
named after each custodian is used as the custodian assignment?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification 250-406   250-406 examen   250-406   250-406 examen

NO.9 What is purpose of the File Based Search in Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x?
A. to run searches that cannot be run via the search UI due to term expansion limitations
B. to provide a way to export only the "Keywords" section data to a CSV file
C. a new way to produce tangible evidence of the Legal Hold notifications that have been created,
their
status, and the custodian actions
D. to place a "hold" on information in its current Enterprise Vault location without collecting or
copying the
data
Answer: C

Symantec   250-406   250-406   250-406   250-406   250-406 examen

NO.10 Which two Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x properties must be modified to
collect data
from Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. esa.icp.collection.ev.index_level
B. esa.icp.collection.ev.content.defaultRetrieveTimeoutSecs
C. esa.common.db.dbname
D. esa.threader.ITD.distribution.enabled
E. esa.ic.ev.collection.max_outstanding_pending_batches
Answer: B,E

certification Symantec   certification 250-406   250-406   250-406   certification 250-406

NO.11 During an early case assessment, it appears that emails of interest are using code words. The
terms
"Red Dog," "Black Cat," and "Green Parrot" appear often in the emails. However, if the word "pet"
appears,
the message is irrelevant.
Which syntax will search for any of the phrases mentioned without the word "pet"?
A. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") NOT pet
B. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") not pet
C. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") W/O pet
D. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") w/o pet
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-406   250-406 examen   250-406

NO.12 A Case Team receives an email indicating that ongoing updates will be added to each
employee profile
in a Windows domain that is of particular interest to custodian data in the Symantec Clearwell
eDiscovery
Platform 7.x.
What should the Case Team implement in the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x to ensure
that
each custodian profile is updated when the new field is added?
A. Scheduled Backup
B. Scheduled Active Directory Discovery
C. Scheduled Bulk Source Import
D. LDAP Configuration Tester
Answer: B

Symantec   250-406 examen   certification 250-406   250-406   certification 250-406

NO.13 A System Manager needs to collect from Symantec Enterprise Vault but is permitted to
perform the
collection only between 9 p.m. in the evening and 1 a.m. in the morning; however, the amount of
data that
must be collected will require more than the allotted 4 hours.
Which steps are required to ensure that all of the necessary data is collected using a single
collection
task?
A. Create two or more collection tasks against the same source.
B. Create a single collection task.
C. Create a single scheduled collection task. Set the schedule to start at 09:00 p.m., end at 01:00
a.m.,
and set the task to repeat.
D. Create a single scheduled collection task. Set a schedule to start at 21:00, end at 01:00, and set
the
task to repeat.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-406 examen   250-406 examen

NO.14 A System Manager needs to import custodians from the Employee List area using the Import
All from
Active Directory menu option. The System Manager receives the message "No Active Directory
users to
import."
Which task needs to be performed for the import to work successfully?
A. run Active Directory discovery from All Collections Sources area
B. run Active Directory discovery from Email Servers page in System area
C. add Active Directory Domain to crawl as source on the Settings page
D. add Active Directory global catalog server as source first on the Settings page
Answer: B

Symantec   250-406   certification 250-406   certification 250-406   250-406

NO.15 A customer requests that all data for a specific custodian in a Symantec Enterprise Vault
mailbox
archive be collected and put on hold within Symantec Enterprise Vault. Since the matter is ongoing,
all
existing and new data must be collected and placed on hold.
Which two tasks should be performed to collect from and apply hold within Symantec Enterprise
Vault?
(Select two.)
A. create a scheduled collection task
B. create a scheduled hold task using the same search criteria as a collection task
C. create a scheduled hold task
D. create a collection task
E. create a hold task
Answer: A,B

Symantec examen   250-406 examen   250-406

NO.16 A Case Team needs to search for all items that include the word "jasmin" because it refers to a
project
that is under investigation. The Case Team also wants to include variations such as "jasmen,"
"jasmine,"
and "jasminum". In addition to running the search now, the search will be saved and run after
additional
data has been added. Stemming is enabled for this case.
Which search syntax or functionality should be used?
A. jasmin
B. jasm*
C. jasm?
D. jasm???
Answer: B

certification Symantec   certification 250-406   250-406

NO.17 A Case Team needs to find all emails sent from Joe Chen to Jun Lee. The search should be
formulated
to return messages that were sent from Joe Chen directly to Jun Lee, or when Jun Lee was cc'd or
bcc'd.
If available, the Case Team wants to leave the default setting to search contained
senders/recipients.
Which search method should the Case Team use?
A. use a Participants search, search emails From participant Joe Chen and To participant Jun Lee
B. search and return all documents, and select Joe Chen from the Sender filter and Jun Lee from the
Recipient filter
C. use a Keywords search, search for participants Joe Chen AND Jun Lee, and under "Fields to
search"
select "Senders and Recipients"
D. use a Participants search, search emails from participant Joe Chen and with participant Jun Lee as
recipient
Answer: D

Symantec   certification 250-406   certification 250-406   250-406

NO.18 An organization needs OCR run against a set of TIFF image files as part of a larger data load.
How
should this be accomplished?
A. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with all image file types selected.
B. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with only TIFF image file types selected.
C. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of all
documents with indexed text.
D. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of the
TIFF
images.
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-406   250-406

NO.19 A legal department asks the Case Team to add a survey question to an existing survey.
How should the Case Team proceed?
A. create a new Custodian Notice with the new survey question and send it to custodians
B. edit an existing Custodian Notice and add question to the existing notice
C. create a System Admin notice with the new survey question and send it to custodians
D. delete the existing notice, create a new notice, and send it to custodians
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-406   250-406

NO.20 An organization plans to switch from Microsoft Exchange to an Open Source mail platform.
The
organization will replace Outlook on all user machines with a new mail program that stores
messages in
the MBOX format.
Which workflow should the System Manager implement to properly process email from the new
system?
A. collect the mail and leave it in its MBOX format, as Clearwell can process mail in the MBOX
format
B. collect the mail, leave it in its MBOX format, and have it converted to Outlook (PST) by a third
party
before processing in Clearwell
C. employ a third-party software solution to convert the MBOX files to Outlook (PST), then process
the
converted files in Clearwell
D. collect the mail and prepare to review it in its native format, then convert only responsive
messages to
Outlook (PST) for processing in Clearwell
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-406   250-406   certification 250-406

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Code d'Examen: 510-025
Nom d'Examen: Sybase (Adaptive Server Enterprise 15.0 Administrator Associate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Given that the following set of commands are executed in a 2k server:
sp_cacheconfig mycache, 100M,
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 50M, 4K
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 10M, 16K, 4K
go
Which of the following are TRUE? (Choose 2)
A. mycache is 40M
B.4K buffer pool is 50M
C.4k buffer pool is 40M
D.2K buffer pool is 50M
E.no 2K buffer pool
Answer: cd

Sybase   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.2 Cursors can now be declared as which of the following? (Choose 4)
A. scrollable
B. forward_only
C. backward_only
D. non-scrollable
E. insensitive
F. semi-sensitive
Answer: adef

Sybase   certification 510-025   510-025 examen   certification 510-025

NO.3 Which system database is used to store distributed transaction management data?
A.sybsystemprocs
B.model
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsecurity
Answer: c

Sybase examen   510-025 examen   510-025 examen   510-025   certification 510-025

NO.4 Which system database controls the behavior of distributed transactions?
A.master
B.sybsecurity
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: c

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.5 Which of the following utility programs are capable of reverse engineering table definitions? (Choose
2)
A.bcp
B.ddlgen
C.optdiag
D.srvbuild
E.Sybase Central
Answer: be

certification Sybase   510-025   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025 examen

NO.6 Which of the following system databases will be built during an ASE installation? (Choose 4)
A.master
B.model
C.sybsyntax
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsystemdb
F.sybsystemprocs
Answer: abef

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   certification 510-025

NO.7 Given that the following commands are successfully executed:
use mydb
go
select * into #myusers from sysusers
go
In which database does #myusers exist?
A.master
B.model
C.mydb
D.tempdbX
Answer: d

Sybase   510-025   certification 510-025   510-025 examen

NO.8 Which command can be used with "static options" to list all the static server configuration options?
A.sp_configure
B.sp_helpconfig
C.sp_monitorconfig
D.sp_poolconfig
E.sp_dboption
Answer: b

Sybase   510-025   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.9 Which of the following statements are true regarding procedure cache size? (Choose 3)
A.Procedure cache size is specified as percentage of the available memory.
B.Procedure cache size is specified as absolute value of the available memory.
C.Procedure cache size is a static parameter.
D.Procedure cache size is a dynamic parameter.
E.Procedure cache size is specified in units of logical pages (2, 4, 8, or 16K).
F.Procedure cache size is specified in units of 2k pages.X
Answer: bdf

Sybase   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025   510-025

NO.10 Which commands can be used to specify the number of histogram steps in systatistics? (Choose 2)
A.create index
B.optdiag
C.update statistics
D.reorg
E.sp_modifystats
Answer: ac

Sybase examen   510-025   510-025 examen

NO.11 What are the partition strategies that allow you to add partitions using alter table? (Choose 2)
A.hash
B.list
C.range
D.round robin
Answer: bc

Sybase   510-025   510-025   510-025

NO.12 If a transaction places an update lock on a data page, what type of lock will a second transaction get if
it attempts to read the data using a SELECT statement?
A.Another UPDATE lock
B.SHARED lock
C.EXCLUSIVE lock
D.No lock is placed as process will be blocked
Answer: b

Sybase   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.13 Which of the following are true about using the load database command?(Choose 3)
A.the database must be at least as large as the size of the database dump
B.the database must have been created with the for load option
C.the database must be exactly the same size as the database dump
D.the database must not be in use
E.the database need not exist because load database will create the database
F.the database must not be marked as suspect
Answer: adf

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   certification 510-025

NO.14 Which of the following databases is used to store Job Scheduler information?
A.sybmigratedb
B.sybmgmtdb
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemdb
Answer: b

Sybase   510-025 examen   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.15 During the installation, which of the following databases are created on the master device? (Choose 2)
A.dbccdb
B.model
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: be

Sybase examen   510-025   510-025

NO.16 To allow dirty reads, which of the following should be executed?
A.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 3
B.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 0
C.HOLDLOCK
D.NOHOLDLOCK
Answer: b

Sybase examen   510-025 examen   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.17 To determine if a configuration parameter is static or dynamic run ___________ specifying the
parameter name. (Choose 2)
A.sp_help
B.sp_configure
C.sp_helpconfig
D.sp_monitorconfig
E.sp_monitorX
Answer: bc

certification Sybase   510-025   510-025

NO.18 Which of the following databases are required for an Adaptive Server installation? (Choose 2)
A.sybsyntax
B.sybsystemdb
C.sybmgmtdb
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsytemprocs
F.dbccdb
Answer: be

certification Sybase   510-025 examen   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.19 Which alter table clause will change an APL table to allow row level locking?
A.lock datarows
B.lock datapages
C.lock allpages
D.with fillfactor = 1
Answer: a

Sybase examen   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.20 When sizing additional network memory, how many packets does each connection require?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: b

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Code d'Examen: 310-502
Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.2 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.3 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.4 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.5 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
Correct:B D

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.6 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.7 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.8 How can a Business Process be configured so that it is capable of responding to more than one
type of error at a time?
A.BPEL does not support the ability to catch multiple exceptions.
B.Create a scope and drag down as many Catch Named Exception elements as needed.
C.Create a catch block to handle as many exceptions as necessary.
D.Select Multi option in the Business Process error handling properties dialog.
Correct:B

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

NO.9 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

SUN   310-502   310-502   310-502

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Code d'Examen: 310-231
Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Developer for Java Web Services 5)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

310-231 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/310-231.html

NO.1 Given:
1. try { // Call Web service Operation
2. org.me.calculator.client.CalculatorWS port =
3. service.getCalculatorWSPort();
4. // TODO initialize WS operation arguments here
5. int i = 3;
6. int j = 4;
7. // TODO process result here
8. int result = port.add(i, j);
9. out.println("<p>Result: " + result);
10.
11. } catch (Exception ex) {

NO.2 Which two statements are true about the role of XML schemas in Web services? (Choose two.)
A. DTDs provide stricter data typing than XML schemas.
B. XML schemas can be used to validate the organization of XML documents.
C. XML schemas contain a vocabulary, content model and data types.
D. DTDs are easier to map to Java than XML schemas, and so remain more popular.
E. The W3C recommends that XML schemas be referred to as XSD.
F. The W3C has designated that XML schemas be referred to as WXS.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 A developer is analyzing an existing Web service with performance problems. The analysis reveals
the service employs SOAP over HTTP. When the size of the encoded binary files grew with changing
business requirements, the service slowed.
What are two effective solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Separating the XML and binary content with WS-Filtering implemented in WSIT will improve efficiency.
B. XML documents larger than 1 KB with binary encoding should be optimized.
C. WS-Addressing can ease congestion by routing messages over other protocols.
D. For existing services, the most effective solution is to increase the available bandwidth.
E. MTOM can reduce both processing and bandwidth required by SOAP with attachments.
Answer: BE

certification SUN   certification 310-231   310-231 examen

NO.4 Given the Java fragment and schema:
1. //-- Java code fragment
2. public enum USState {MA, NH}
3. //-- Schema fragment
4. <xs:simpleType name=xsState?
5. <xs:restriction base=xs:string?
6. <xs:enumeration value=NH?/>
7. <xs:enumeration value=MA?/>
8. </xs:restriction>
9. </xs:simpleType>
10. // .NET auto generated code from schema
11. public enum usState { NH, MA }
Which statement is true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data?
A. Based on the fragment, enumerations map well between Java and .Net.
B. The subtle differences in the variable names make it clear these enumerations are NOT interoperable.
C. The XML schema reveals the type on the enumeration is lost across the platforms.
D. This exchange would be interoperable if the annotation @XmlEnum was applied to the Java method.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company is building a customer relationship management system that is to be deployed on a
customer's network, and they want software functions to be reused and combined in different modules in
the system. The Director of Technology has determined that the new system should utilize both Web
services and a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA).
Which two statements about Web services in an SOA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A Web service must be discovered from a UDDI registry in an SOA.
B. SOA and Web services both use the HTTP protocol at the transport layer.
C. A Web service must publish itself to a UDDI registry to become part of an SOA.
D. SOA is a way to design a system and Web services are a possible implementation.
E. SOA is used for stateless invocations, and Web services for stateful invocations.
F. SOA emphasizes the concept of service encapsulation and Web services fulfill a service contract.
Answer: DF

SUN   310-231   310-231   310-231

NO.6 A student developer has created a new library of math functions to share with friends in a linear algebra
class. The developer is having difficulty getting people to come over to the dorm to see the new code
library, so he decides to deploy it as a Web service so that everyone can enjoy the features via the
Internet. One of the functions has this WSDL definition:
<portType name="MyMathLib">
<operation name="incCtr">
<input message="tns:incCtr"/>
</operation>
</portType>
Which two statements are true about this Web service? (Choose two.)
A. This is an asynchronous receive.
B. This is an asynchronous send.
C. The client must use SOAPFaultException to display any errors.
D. It must send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
E. It must NOT send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
Answer: BE

SUN   310-231 examen   certification 310-231

NO.7 }
Assume Reliable Messaging is used and the code is correct except for what is missing at line 10.
Which code fragment must be placed at line 10?
A. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close(); after testing result is positive.
B. Close the port with port.close();
C. Closing the port object is optional, but port.close(); will work.
D. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close();
Answer: D

SUN   310-231   certification 310-231
12. Which two statements are true about Java clients that use a security token service (STS) supported
by the security features of WSIT? (Choose two.)
A. The client only requires a keystore.
B. STS requires a default user name configuration.
C. Using an STS-issued token requires a keystore and a truststore.
D. HTTPS must be configured.
E. An authorized client receives a token digitally signed by the STS.
Answer: CE

certification SUN   certification 310-231   certification 310-231   310-231
13. A developer who recently added message optimization support to the company's Web services is
tasked with explaining how the next crop of WSIT client applications will use the feature.
Which statement is true?
A. Client developers should have experience with the SAAJ and MIME types to use MTOM with the
service.
B. The clients should use the service WSDL to discover and satisfy the interoperability requirements.
C. Adding message optimization is a manual step when the WSDL is available on HTTPS.
D. The encryption for optimization requires a client keystore.
Answer: B

SUN   310-231   certification 310-231

NO.8 A company's new investment management Java application and a legacy stock trader application
need to communicate, but they use different JMS implementations. A developer decides to implement a
JMS bridge to solve the problem.
Which two advantages does this pattern provide? (Choose two.)
A. It converts the interface of a class into another interface that clients expect.
B. It decouples an abstraction from its implementation so that the two can vary independently.
C. It dynamically attaches additional responsibilities to an object.
D. It optimizes network traffic.
E. It is vendor independent.
Answer: BE

SUN   certification 310-231   310-231   certification 310-231

NO.9 out.println("<p>Exception: " + ex);

NO.10 A developer plans to refactor some of the company's existing Java EE 5 business services, moving
them out of the existing monolithic application and into Web services.
What are two benefits of exposing existing Java EE 5 functionality as a Web service? (Choose two.)
A. improved manageability
B. more finely-grained
C. enhanced security
D. loose coupling of functionality
E. self-describing
F. automatic session management
Answer: DE

SUN   310-231 examen   310-231   310-231   310-231

NO.11 Given the Java fragment and schema:
1. //-- Java code fragment
2. public class PurchaseOrder{
3. public javax.xml.datatype.XMLGregorianCalendar orderDate;
4. }
5. //-- Schema fragment
6. <xs:complexType name="purchaseOrder">
7. <xs:sequence>
8. <xs:element name="orderDate" type="xs:anySimpleType"
9. minOccurs="0"/>
10. </xs:sequence>
11. </xs:complexType>
Which two statements are true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data? (Choose two.)
A. The GregorianCalendar maps to an equivalent date type in both Java and .Net.
B. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that functions as well as a date.
C. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that is not type equivalent.
D. Use of the @XmlSchemaType annotation causes .Net to properly map to a date.
E. Casting in the case of WSIT services is an effective approach for the WCF client.
Answer: CD

SUN   310-231   310-231   310-231   certification 310-231   certification 310-231

NO.12 The WSIT project implements a number of WS-* specifications to aid developers in creating secure and
interoperable services.
What are two parts of the WS-specifications? (Choose two.)
A. WS-ReliableMessaging
B. WS-Bootstrapping
C. WS-Eventing
D. WS-Policy
E. WS-WSITrust
Answer: AD

SUN   310-231 examen   certification 310-231   310-231

NO.13 A team of developers is designing RESTful Web services for a new application.
What are three properties of the services? (Choose three.)
A. They can be stateful.
B. They can be stateless.
C. Components communicate by exchanging representations of the resource.
D. Components communicate by directly performing operations on the resource.
E. They require WSDL service API definitions.
F. Responses can be labeled as cacheable or non-cacheable.
Answer: BCF

SUN   310-231   310-231   certification 310-231   certification 310-231

NO.14 A developer is creating an XML schema using the xsd:all operator.
Given the code:
<types>
<schema targetNamespace="http://sun.cert/types"
xmlns:tns="http://sun.cert/types"
xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xsd:complexType name="Person">
<xsd:all>
<!-- insert code here -->
</xsd:all>
</xsd:complexType>
</schema>
</types>
Which two element definitions, when inserted into the given schema fragment, result in a correct schema
type definition? (Choose two.)
A. <xsd:element name="first" type="xsd:string"/>
B. <xsd:element name="items" type="xsd:long" maxOccurs="5"/>
C. <xsd:element name="last" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/>
D. <xsd:element name="first" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="5"/>
E. <xsd:element name="last" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="5"/>
F. <xsd:element name="ssn" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unlimited"/>
Answer: AC

SUN   310-231   310-231 examen   310-231

NO.15 A team of developers is describing a set of endpoints in their new SOA application.
Given the WSDL extract:
<service name="InventoryServices">
<port name="PurchaseOrder" binding="tns:POBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
<port name="Invoice" binding="tns:InvoiceBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
</service>
Which statement is true about this WSDL extract?
A. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port element names are different.
B. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to the same
location.
C. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to different binding
elements.
D. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because it contains two port elements in the same
service.
E. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because both port element names are different.
F. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because the port, binding, and service element
combinations are unique.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A company uses Web services to exchange mortgage and credit data as well as digital versions of
associated documents. The data is confidential and it is common for the service and client to exchange
applications, credit results, reports and more in a request/response format. Recently, the company has
become concerned about the substantial cost of processing and message encryption with a PKI
approach.
What can be done to cut costs?
A. use MTOM to optimize the messages and provide data confidentiality via XML Digital Signature
B. because of the weak adoption of WS-SecureConversation on Java platforms, consider using Kerberos
C. use HTTPS as it is both economical and adequate
D. use WS-SecureConversation and MTOM to reduce the processing overhead
Answer: D

SUN   310-231   310-231 examen

NO.17 A developer must describe a message that contains multiple parts using non-primitive data types.
Which two code fragments produce equivalent composite message structure definitions? (Choose two.)
A. <types>
<schema .... >
<complexType name="FOO" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="FOOType">
.
.
.
</element >
<complexType name="BAR" type="tns:BARType"/>
<element name="BARType">
.
.
.
</element >
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="FOO" complexType="tns:FOO"/>
<part name="BAR" complexType="tns:BAR"/>
</message>
B. <types>
<schema .... >
<element name="FOO" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<complexType name="FOOType">
.
.
.
</complexType>
<element name="BAR" type="tns:BARType"/>
<complexType name="BARType">
.
.
.
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="FOO" element="tns:FOO"/>
<part name="BAR" element="tns:BAR"/>
</message>
C. <types>
<schema .... >
.
.
.
<complexType name="Composite">
<choice>
<element name="FOO" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="BAR" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="tns:BARType"/>
</choice>
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="composite" type="Composite"/>
</message>
D. <types>
<schema .... >
.
.
.
<complexType name="Composite">
<choice>
<element name="FOO" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="BAR" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="tns:BARType"/>
</choice>
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="composite" type="tns:Composite"/>
</message>
Answer: BD

certification SUN   310-231   310-231   certification 310-231

NO.18 According to the WS-I Basic Profile 1.1, which two statements are true about the targetNamespace
attribute for xsd:schema elements that are children of WSDL 1.1 type element? (Choose two.)
A. Its value must be valid unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
B. Its value must be empty unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
C. It should have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
D. It must have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
Answer: AD

SUN   310-231 examen   certification 310-231   310-231 examen   310-231

NO.19 A company has contracted a developer to create their new accounting system. The system the
developer will replace runs a monolithic web application using one web server and one database server.
Technical requirements state the developer must write the business logic in Java, deploy to the
application server and push the presentation logic onto the web servers.
What are three characteristics of services in the proposed Service Oriented Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Services are coarse grained.
B. Services are finely grained.
C. Services are loosely coupled.
D. Services are tightly coupled.
E. Clients must be implemented in the Java technology.
F. Services are platform agnostic, network-addressable web APIs.
Answer: ACF

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Code d'Examen: SQ0-101
Nom d'Examen: See-Beyond (E*Gate 4.5 Associate Developer)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are the Schema related files maintained?
A. eGate/Server/registry/<SCHEMA NAME>.rdb
B. eGate/Server/registry/repository/Schemas.rdb
C. eGate/Server/registry/repository/<SCHEMA NAME> directory
D. eGate/client/monk scripts/common directory
Answer: A, C

See-Beyond   SQ0-101   SQ0-101

NO.2 How do you import an external file and register it in an e*Gate Schema?
A. Use the stcinstd.exe to import the file
B. Use the Import Module option
C. Use the Commit to Sandbox option
D. None of the above
Answer: C

See-Beyond   certification SQ0-101   SQ0-101   SQ0-101

NO.3 When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the
installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these
files because:
A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system
B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed
on the system
C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 An e*Gate Schema:
A. Is comprised of at least one e*Way, Collaboration, Collaboration Rule, Multi-Mode
e*Way, IQ and Event Type
B. Is all configuration information organized into a logical project
C. Is stored in a file with the extension .rdb on each respective Participating Host
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 The default Schema:
A. Contains templates of configuration files and Monk scripts
B. Contains templates of ETD files
C. Contains user created and modified files for all users
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

certification See-Beyond   SQ0-101 examen   SQ0-101   SQ0-101 examen   SQ0-101

NO.6 Files that have advisory locks placed upon them by the Team Registry feature may
be "unlocked" when:
A. The user who checked out the file promotes the file
B. The user who checked out the file, removes the file from the Sandbox without
promoting it
C. The user exits the e*Gate Editor without ever saving the file
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B, C

certification See-Beyond   SQ0-101 examen   SQ0-101

NO.7 The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:
A. Registry Service is customized
B. Installer Service is running
C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive
D. None of the above
Answer: B

See-Beyond   SQ0-101 examen   SQ0-101

NO.8 Which command line utility will start the Control Broker?
A. stcregutil.exe
B. stcinstd.exe
C. stccb.exe
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.9 The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:
A. Moving messages between internal & external message queues
B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from
internal/external systems
C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages
D. None of the above
Answer: B

See-Beyond   SQ0-101   SQ0-101 examen   certification SQ0-101   SQ0-101

NO.10 When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?
A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted
B. The e*Gate Registry Service
C. The Lightweight Installer Service
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

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