Certification Questions et réponses Microsoft: 十一月 2013

2013年11月30日星期六

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Code d'Examen: HP0-794
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft
Windows Server 2003?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.23
Correct:D

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NO.3 The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?
A.Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for
SQL 2000.
B.Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same
set of disks for SQL 2000.
C.Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D.Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of
SQL 2000.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster
Communications Only? Select THREE.
A.Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature.
C.Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s.
D.Set the adapter to use NetBIOS.
E.Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex.
F.Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect.
Correct:B C E

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NO.6 Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the
graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______. Select TWO.
A.each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire
cluster
B.the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to
support critical services
C.the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for
peak load cluster services
D.each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster
E.the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster
Correct:B D

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NO.7 Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?
A.It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential
shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system.
B.It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and
load segment configurations.
C.It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup
power supply is exhausted.
D.It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the
connected equipment.
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver
connection and supports the MSA1000?
A.32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
B.64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset
C.64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset
D.64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
Correct:C

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NO.9 Cluster.exe can be used to _______.
A.launch the Cluster Monitor utility
B.administer clusters
C.launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator
D.power down the cluster
Correct:B

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NO.10 What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment?
A.hardware
B.applications
C.operating system
D.operational issues
E.infrastructure (building, power, network)
Correct:A

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Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.2 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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NO.5 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

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NO.6 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

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NO.7 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

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NO.8 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

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NO.11 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.12 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

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NO.13 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

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NO.14 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

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NO.15 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.16 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

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NO.17 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.18 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.20 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.21 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

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NO.22 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

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NO.23 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

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NO.24 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.25 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.26 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.27 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

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NO.28 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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NO.30 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
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NO.1 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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NO.2 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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NO.3 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.4 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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NO.5 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.6 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.7 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.8 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.9 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.10 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.11 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.12 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.13 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.14 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.15 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.16 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.17 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.18 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.19 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.20 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y19
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Accelerated ASE Mobility)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 You must configure Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) on two ProCurve 8212zl switches
and four 5406zl switches. Which configuration is necessary to ensure that all of the switches join
the same MST region?
A.The switches must have identical Port Priorities for shared links in each MST instance.
B.Bridge Priorities on all switches must be configured so that each MST instance has a different Root
Bridge.
C.All switch-to-switch links in each MST instance must be tagged members of all user VLANs.
D.The switches must be configured with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance
mappings.
Correct:D

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NO.2 You must configure a ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated
with VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A.It must be an address assigned to a multi-netted interface.
B.It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C.It must match the Backup router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D.It must match the Owner router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
Correct:D

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NO.3 You connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to a port on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl.
The port is a member of a voice VLAN and also requires 802.1X authentication. How will
LLDP-MED and 802.1X interact?
A.The switch will exempt the phone from the 802.1X requirement after confirming its LLDP-MED
information.
B.The switch will submit the phone's authentication credentials to a RADIUS server after the devices
exchange LLDP-MED information.
C.The switch will permit LLDP-MED communication with the phone after authentication is complete.
D.The switch will use information from the phone's first LLDP-MED frame to submit its authentication
credentials.
Correct:C

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NO.4 You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the
customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 priority markers for allvoice traffic, and the
VoIP traffic will not cross any routed links. What is necessary to ensure that ProVision ASIC
switches maintain the priorities set by the phones? (Selecttwo.)
A.LLDP-MED for all voice VLANs
B.an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice traffic
C.port-based priorities for ports connected to phones
D.default QoS settings
E.tagged links for all voice VLAN traffic
Correct:D E

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NO.5 Port C1 on a ProCurve Switch 5412zl is a tagged member of VLAN 50 and an untagged member
of VLAN 1. Port C2 and port C3 are at default VLAN settings. What is the effect of the following
command entered at the CLI? 5412zl(config)# trunk c1-c3 trk1
A.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1, but port C1 is not included.
B.The trunk is not defined, because the ports' VLAN memberships do not match.
C.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 50.
D.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 but is not a member of VLAN 50.
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which part of the multicast address range is reserved for applications that will remain within an
enterprise intranet?
A.Internetwork Control Block
B.AD-HOC Block
C.Administratively Scoped Address Block
D.Local Network Control Block
Correct:C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. What does this output from the show ip ospf neighbor command
indicate about the OSPF neighbor relationship between this router and the router with ID 10.3.0.1?
A.They are in different OSPF areas.
B.They have not formed an adjacency.
C.They are configured with different OSPF versions.
D.They are not eligible to be elected DR or BDR.
Correct:B

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NO.8 You configured VLAN 10 and VLAN 24 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl-48G. The network servers
reside in VLAN 10, which has an IP address range of 10.1.10.0/24. Network clients reside in VLAN
24, which has an IP address range of 10.1.24.0/24. You configure an ACL with these entries and
apply it statically to ports in VLAN 24: permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq http permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0
10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq telnet What is the effect of these ACLs on the clients located in
VLAN 24?
A.They would have no access at all, because the ACL is misconfigured.
B.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but no access anywhere else.
C.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but full access to everything
else in the 10.1.10.0 subnet.
D.They could not access anything in the 10.1.10.0 subnet, because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
Correct:B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. What is the role of this Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A.ASBR
B.virtual router
C.ABR
D.internal router
Correct:D

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NO.10 On a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A.MSTP
B.IP routing
C.IP multicast
D.RIP
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M22
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Service Manager Software)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are RDBMS permissions controlled?
A. in LDAP
B. in the RDBMS
C. in the Service Manager client
D. in the Service Manager server
Answer: B

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NO.2 For what is Service Manager considered an authoritative source?
A. contact data
B. location data
C. incident data
D. email addresses
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a valid database choice for Service Manager?
A. Service Manager proprietary database, P4
B. any RDBMS that supplies an ODBC connection
C. MS SQL Server that can be used with any application server
D. MS SQL Server that can only be used with a Windows-based application server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about deploying the Windows client?
A. It should never be deployed.
B. There is no Windows client to deploy.
C. It should be deployed to perform tailoring.
D. It should be deployed to accomplish daily operation tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is used as a condition for a menu or a display option that makes an option only available to
system administrators?
A. index($ucapex,"SysAdmin")=0
B. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)>0
C. index("SysAdmin",$lo.ucapex)=0
D. index($lo.ucapex,"SysAdmin")>0
Answer: B

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NO.6 What must all Service Manager communications to the RDBMS go through?
A. the client
B. the web tier
C. the application server
D. the web services interface
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which debugger is available from the Service Manager Windows client? (Select two.)
A. RAD Debugger
B. Advanced Debugger
C. JavaScript Debugger
D. Web Client Debugger
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which file contains information on self-service license usage?
A. sc.log
B. sm.log
C. sm.alert.log
D. system.startup
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which data type typically represents the Service Manager character data type on the RDBMS?
A. text
B. float
C. varchar
D. Boolean
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which RDBMS running on UNIX is compatible with Service Manager?
A. P4
B. Oracle 10
C. Sybase 12.5
D. SQL Server 2005
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where are Service Manager localized notifications set up?
A. rules wizard
B. macro engine
C. message class D. notification engine
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which application in Service Manager is associated with ITIL v2 Definitive Software Library (DSL)?
A. Project Management
B. Release Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Lifecycle Management
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which access method is used to connect to the SQL Server Database from Service Manager?
A. web services
B. SQL Server API
C. SQL Server client
D. ODBC driver for SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.14 How can new fields be added to the RDBMS when the Service Manager user does not have alter
rights to the database? (Select two.)
A. by mapping the new fields to a null table
B. by adding the field to the dbdict and clicking on SM Alters
C. by adding the fields to the RDBMS and having Service Manager detect them
D. by supplying the DDL from the Alter dialog box to the Database Administrator
Answer: CD

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NO.15 What determines case sensitivity in Service Manager?
A. case setting in the sm.ini
B. case setting of the DBDICT utility
C. database (RDBMS) configuration settings D. case sensitivity settings in the System-Wide Information
Record
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which startup parameter is required to connect Service Manager to its RDBMS?
A. sqllogin
B. sqldebug
C. sqlconnect
D. sqlfetchrows
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which application in Service Manager stores ITIL's configuration items?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.18 To which file are debugging parameters added?
A. sm.ini
B. sm.log
C. sm.cfg
D. System-Wide Information Record
Answer: A

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NO.19 How many threads does a Service Manager user establish on the RDBMS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which file contains debugging information?
A. sm.log
B. debug.log
C. send.log
D. sm.alert.log
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-754
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

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NO.2 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

HP   HP0-754 examen   HP0-754   HP0-754

NO.4 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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NO.5 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

HP   HP0-754   HP0-754   HP0-754 examen

NO.7 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.8 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.11 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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NO.12 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

HP examen   certification HP0-754   HP0-754   HP0-754

NO.13 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

certification HP   HP0-754   HP0-754 examen   certification HP0-754

NO.15 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.16 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-754   HP0-754 examen   HP0-754 examen   HP0-754 examen

NO.17 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.20 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP2-027
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

HP   HP2-027   HP2-027   HP2-027

NO.6 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-061
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )
Questions et réponses: 365 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.5 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

HP examen   certification HP2-061   certification HP2-061

NO.8 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

HP examen   HP2-061   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061

NO.9 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

certification HP   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.10 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.11 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061   HP2-061 examen

NO.12 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

certification HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061

NO.13 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

HP examen   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061   HP2-061 examen

NO.14 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

certification HP   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.15 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.16 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.18 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

HP   HP2-061   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061

NO.19 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.20 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.21 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

HP examen   HP2-061   HP2-061   certification HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.22 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

certification HP   HP2-061   HP2-061   HP2-061

NO.23 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.24 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061

NO.25 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

HP   HP2-061   certification HP2-061

NO.26 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

HP examen   certification HP2-061   HP2-061   certification HP2-061   certification HP2-061

NO.27 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061

NO.28 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

certification HP   certification HP2-061   HP2-061   HP2-061 examen

NO.29 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

HP   HP2-061 examen   HP2-061   certification HP2-061   certification HP2-061

NO.30 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

HP   certification HP2-061   certification HP2-061   HP2-061

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