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Code d'Examen: 4A0-104
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 141 Q&As

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NO.1 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B

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NO.2 Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C

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NO.3 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C

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NO.4 Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A

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NO.5 Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

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Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.2 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

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NO.3 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.4 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.6 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.8 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

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NO.9 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

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NO.10 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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NO.12 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.15 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.16 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.18 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.19 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1
Nom d'Examen: ASTQB (ISTQB Advanced Level Test manager Exam)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

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NO.5 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

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NO.7 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IBMSPSSMPRO
Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler Professional Certification)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which mode is not available In the Auto Numeric node?
A. Chaid
B. Logistic
C. Neural Net
D. Regression
Answer: C

SPSS   IBMSPSSMPRO   IBMSPSSMPRO examen   IBMSPSSMPRO examen   IBMSPSSMPRO

NO.2 Generally speaking, to modify values in columns of working data file, you would use nodes
from which palette or menu group?
A. Record Ops
B. Field Ops
C. Export
D. Sources
Answer: B

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NO.3 The set Random seed option on the sample node is required if you want to draw the same
random sample with the same records more than once.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SPSS   IBMSPSSMPRO   certification IBMSPSSMPRO

NO.4 Which outlier treatment is not available in the Quality tab of the Data Audit output?
A. Coerce
B. Nullify
C. Recode
D. Discard
Answer: C

SPSS   IBMSPSSMPRO examen   IBMSPSSMPRO   IBMSPSSMPRO

NO.5 Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal)
fields? (Select all that apply)
A. Means node
B. Matrix node
C. Distribution node
D. Table node
Answer: A,C

certification SPSS   IBMSPSSMPRO   IBMSPSSMPRO   IBMSPSSMPRO

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Code d'Examen: P11-101
Nom d'Examen: PayPal (PayPal Certified Developer: Payments)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
Answer: D

certification PayPal   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

NO.2 What does "authorization" mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer's credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer's consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer's credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C

PayPal   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101

NO.3 What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
Answer: B

certification PayPal   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101 examen

NO.4 When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
Answer: A

PayPal examen   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

NO.5 You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
Answer: E,F

PayPal   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101 examen

NO.6 What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer's shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: D

PayPal examen   P11-101   P11-101

NO.7 When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant's PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant's account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D

PayPal   P11-101 examen   P11-101 examen   P11-101 examen

NO.8 Sam uses Adaptive Payments' Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
"guest payment" ("guest checkout"): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender's email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer's credit card information in his site/application.
Answer: B,C

PayPal   certification P11-101   P11-101   P11-101 examen

NO.9 When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D

PayPal   P11-101   P11-101 examen   P11-101

NO.10 Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B

certification PayPal   P11-101   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

NO.11 Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender's PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver's account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender's bank to clear it first.
Answer: A,D,E

PayPal examen   certification P11-101   certification P11-101   P11-101 examen   P11-101   P11-101

NO.12 When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL
E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C

PayPal   P11-101   P11-101

NO.13 When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
Answer: D

PayPal examen   P11-101   P11-101   certification P11-101   P11-101

NO.14 When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D

certification PayPal   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101 examen

NO.15 When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D

PayPal examen   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA-v6.2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))
Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.2 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.3 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen

NO.4 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.5 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.6 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.7 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.8 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.9 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.10 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.11 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.12 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen

NO.13 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.14 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

Pegasystems examen   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.15 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: M70-101
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. text
B. textarea
C. select
D. multiselect
E. date
F. gallery
Answer: C,D

Magento   M70-101   M70-101

NO.2 The final price for the product on the product view page is__________.
A. taken from the catalog_product_index_price table
B. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_idx table
C. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_f inal_idx table
D. calculated on-the-fly on php-level
E. pre-calculated in the products price attribute
Answer: D

Magento   M70-101 examen   M70-101

NO.3 Which method is called on a shipping carrier model to fetch a list of all available shipping methods,
along with the rates associated with them, for a quote address?
A. collectShippingRates()
B. getAllowedMethodsO
C. getShippingRates ()
D. getAvailableRates()
E. collectRates()
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which table is used for calculating a new increment ID for an order?
A. sales_flat_order_increment
B. eav_entity_store
C. core_increment
D. core_config_data
Answer: B

Magento   M70-101   certification M70-101   M70-101

NO.5 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_category.save
B. catalog_product, items
C. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
D. catalog_product.info
Answer: D

Magento   M70-101 examen   certification M70-101

NO.7 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been
posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend.?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
Answer: A

Magento   M70-101   M70-101   M70-101 examen

NO.10 You have a product collection and want to add a filter to get all products whose name starts with Test or
whose price is 0.00.
Which of the following statements would add that OR condition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: A

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NO.11 How is the sort order in which total models collect their values specified?
A. The sort order is specified in the admin configuration under Sales > "Checkout Totals Sort Order".
B. The sort order is specified in the system configuration under global/sales/quote/totals/ [total_code] with
<before> and <after> nodes.
C. The sort order is defined by the module loading order as specified by the children of the modules/
[module_name]/depends configuration node.
D. The sort order is specified by the collect method in each total model.
Answer: A

Magento examen   M70-101   certification M70-101   certification M70-101

NO.12 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _isAllowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

Magento   M70-101   M70-101   certification M70-101   M70-101 examen

NO.13 For an attribute to be loaded on a catalog/product object, which two of the following conditions must be
satisfied? (Choose two)
A. The eav_attribute table must contain a row defining the attribute's properties and its entity type.
B. The attribute must have a backend model configured in the XML config.
C. The attribute must be part of the attribute set pertaining to the object being loaded.
D. There must be a record of the attribute on the catalog_product_super_atti:ibute table.
E. There must be a column added to the catalog_product_entity table.
Answer: A,C

Magento   M70-101 examen   certification M70-101

NO.14 Which one of the following EAV attribute types may be used for layered navigation in native Magento?
A. varchar
B. enum
C. option
D. union
Answer: C

certification Magento   M70-101   certification M70-101

NO.15 You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct
XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM-001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001

NO.2 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI examen   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001 examen
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test
process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are
developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them
toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing
inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.

NO.3 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

NO.4 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

NO.5 Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are
currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and
resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
1.You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

NO.6 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.7 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

NO.8 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.9 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001 examen   certification CTAL-TM-001

NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM_001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM_001   certification CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen

NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI examen   certification CTAL-TM_001   certification CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.3 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

certification ISQI   CTAL-TM_001 examen   certification CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.4 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.5 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001 examen

NO.6 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001

NO.7 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001 examen   certification CTAL-TM_001

NO.8 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001

NO.9 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

certification ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   certification CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.10 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 8002
Nom d'Examen: PRMIA (PRM Certification - Exam II: Mathematical Foundations of Risk Measurement)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 The sum of the infinite series 1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+.... equals:
A. 12
B. Infinity
C. 128
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence: 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ­ ?
A. 1 048 574
B. 1 048 595
C. 2 097 170
D. 2 097 172
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   8002   8002   8002

NO.3 Let a, b and c be real numbers. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The commutativity of multiplication is defined by
B. The existence of negatives is defined by
C. The distributivity of multiplication is defined by
D. The associativity of multiplication is defined by
Answer: C

PRMIA   8002   8002 examen   8002   8002   certification 8002

NO.4 What is the 40th term in the following series: 4, 14, 30, 52, ­ ?
A. 240
B. 4598
C. 4840
D. 4960
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   8002 examen   8002 examen   8002

NO.5 You invest $100 000 for 3 years at a continuously compounded rate of 3%. At the end of 3 years, you
redeem the investment. Taxes of 22% are applied at the time of redemption. What is your approximate
after-tax profit from the investment, rounded to $10?
A. $9420
B. $7350
C. $7230
D. $7100
Answer: B

PRMIA examen   8002   certification 8002   8002 examen   8002

NO.6 Which of the following is not a sequence?
A. , , , ­ , , o
B. , , , , ­
C. , , , , , , ­
D. 30
Answer: D

PRMIA   8002   8002 examen   8002

NO.7 Solve the simultaneous linear equations: x + 2y - 2 = 0 and y - 3x = 8
A. x = 1, y = 0.5
B. x = -2, y = 2
C. x = 2, y = 0
D. None of the above
Answer: B

PRMIA   8002   8002   certification 8002   8002

NO.8 For a quadratic equation, which of the following is FALSE?
A. If the discriminant is negative, there are no real solutions
B. If the discriminant is zero, there is only one solution
C. If the discriminant is negative there are two different real solutions
D. If the discriminant is positive there are two different real solutions
Answer: C

PRMIA examen   8002 examen   8002 examen   certification 8002

NO.9 For each of the following functions, indicate whether its graph is concave or convex:
Y = 7x2 + 3x + 9
Y = 6 ln(3x)
Y = exp(-4x)
A. concave, concave, concave
B. concave, convex, convex
C. convex, concave, concave
D. convex, convex, concave
Answer: C

certification PRMIA   8002   certification 8002   certification 8002

NO.10 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Discrete and continuous compounding produce the same results if the discount rate is positive.
B. Continuous compounding is the better method because it results in higher present values compared to
discrete compounding.
C. Continuous compounding can be thought as making the compounding period infinitesimally small.
D. The constant plays an important role in the mathematical description of continuous compounding.
Answer: C

PRMIA   certification 8002   8002   certification 8002   8002   8002 examen

NO.11 Which of the provided answers solves this system of equations?
2y
3x = 3y +x
y2 + x2 = 68
A. x = 1; y = square root of 67
B. x = 2; y = 8
C. x = 2; y = -8
D. x = -2; y = -8
Answer: C

PRMIA   certification 8002   certification 8002   8002   certification 8002

NO.12 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Every linear function is also a quadratic function.
B. A function is defined by its domain together with its action.
C. For finite and small domains, the action of a function may be specified by a list.
D. A function is a rule that assigns to every value x at least one value of y.
Answer: D

PRMIA examen   8002   8002   8002 examen   8002

NO.13 You invest $2m in a bank savings account with a constant interest rate of 5% p.a. What is the value of
the investment in 2 years time if interest is compounded quarterly?
A. $2,208,972
B. $2,210,342
C. $2.205,000
D. None of them
Answer: A

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NO.14 Identify the type and common element (that is, common ratio or common difference) of the following
sequence: 6, 12, 24
A. arithmetic sequence, common difference 2
B. arithmetic sequence, common ratio 2
C. geometric sequence, common ratio 2
D. geometric sequence, common ratio 3
Answer: C

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NO.15 You intend to invest $100 000 for five years. Four different interest payment options are available.
Choose the interest option that yields the highest return over the five year period.
A. a lump-sum payment of $22 500 on maturity (in five years)
B. an annually compounded rate of 4.15%
C. a quarterly-compounded rate of 4.1%
D. a continuously-compounded rate of 4%
Answer: C

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NO.16 The natural logarithm of x is:.?
A. the inverse function of exp(x)
B. log(e)
C. always greater than x, for x>0
D. 46
Answer: A

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NO.17 When a number is written with a fraction as an exponent, such as , which of the following is the correct
computation?
A. Take the square-root of 75 and raise it to the 5th power
B. Divide 75 by 2, then raise it to the 5th power
C. Multiply 75 by 2.5
D. Square 75, then take the fifth root of it
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following properties is exhibited by multiplication, but not by addition?
A. associativity
B. commutativity
C. distributivity
D. invertibility
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the simplest form of this expression: log2(165/2)
A. 10
B. 32
C. 5/2 + log2(16)
D. log2 (5/2) + log2(16)
Answer: A

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NO.20 Find the roots, if they exist in the real numbers, of the quadratic equation
A. 4 and -2
B. -4 and 2
C. 1 and 0
D. No real roots
Answer: D

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