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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-881

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Security Administrator Certified Expert Exam)

Questions et réponses: 293 Q&As

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NO.1 A cryptographically signed patch provides system administrators with assurance that the patch
possesses certain qualities. Which two qualities are assured when a patch signature is verified? (Choose
two.)
A. The patch has a verified origin.
B. The patch has NOT been modified since it was signed.
C. The patch was created by a Sun Certified Systems Engineer.
D. The contents of the patch have NOT been revealed to anyone who does NOT have a Sun service plan.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A new security related patch has been released for the Solaris OS. This patch needs to be applied
to the system that functions as your web server. The web server is configured to run in a non-
global zone. Can you just use patch add to apply the patch to the global zone to update the web
server zone?
A. No, you need to shut down the web server zone first.
B. Yes, patches will be automatically applied to all zones.
C. No, you need to apply the patch to the web server zone separately.
D. Yes, but you must make sure that the web server zone is booted first.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You decided it was worth maintaining an extremely paranoid policy when configuring your firewall
rules. Therefore, you had your management approve the implementation of a security policy
stance to deny all inbound connection requests to your corporate network. How is it possible that
you still suffer from remote exploits that your adversaries are using to obtain interactive sessions
inside your firewall?
A. TCP splicing is easy to do.
B. Internal software may be vulnerable.
C. UDP vulnerabilities are well-known and exploited.
D. ICMP hijacking attacks can still succeed through any firewall.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A security administator has a requirement to make an encrypted backup copy of an application and its
data, using the AES algorithm, so that it can be safely transmitted to a partner. Which two command
sequences can be used to generate an encrypted backup of the files under /app1? (Choose two.)
A. crypt < /app1/* > app1.backup.aes
B. encrypt -a aes -d /app1 -o app1.backup.aes
C. tar cf - /app1 | gzip -d -e aes > app1.backup.aes
D. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ crypt -a aes > app1.backup.aes
E. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ encrypt -a aes -o app1.backup.aes
F. tar cf - /app1 |\ openssl enc -out app1.backup.aes -aes-128-cbc
Answer: E,F

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NO.5 Given:
jupiter:$md5,rounds=2006$2amXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.:12210:::::: What is the
characteristic of this /etc/shadow entry?
A. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with salt 2006$2amXesSj5$, and with the encrypted password
$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
B. User jupiter uses the 2a hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
C. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
D. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with no salt, and with the encrypted
password $rQmXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
Answer: C

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NO.6 After a recent audit, you have been requested to minimize an existing Solaris system which runs a third
party database application. Which two should you do before starting to minimize the system? (Choose
two.)
A. Back up the system.
B. Remove any unneeded patches.
C. Install the SUNWrnet metacluster.
D. Remove any unneeded packages.
E. Confirm with the vendor of the database software that they support minimization.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Your company is running a DNS test server on the internal network. Access to this server must be
blocked by using IP Filter. The administrator prefers that this access control is not obvious to someone
trying to contact the server from the outside. Which rule implements the access control but hides the use
of IP Filter to the outside?
A. pass in quick on eri0 from 192.168.0.0/24 to any
B. block in quick proto udp from any to any port = 53
C. pass out quick on eri0 proto icmp from 192.168.1.2 to any keep state
D. block return-icmp(port-unr) in proto udp from any to 192.168.1.2 port = 53
Answer: D

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NO.8 Packet filters and firewalls are an important component of any defense-in-depth security strategy.
Which two types of threats can IP Filter be deployed as an effective countermeasure against? (Choose
two.)
A. a Christmas Tree scan
B. an attempt to log in to a system using SSH by an unauthorized user
C. an attempt to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability in a web storefront application
D. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an authorized
network
E. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an
unauthorized network
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 To harden a newly installed Solaris OS, an administrator is required to make sure that syslogd is
configured to NOT accept messages from the network. Which supported method can be used to
configure syslogd like this?
A. Run svcadm disable -t svc:/network/system-log.
B. Edit /etc/default/syslogd to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
C. Edit /etc/rc2.d/S74syslog to start syslogd with the -t option.
D. Edit /lib/svc/method/system-log to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The /etc/default/passwd file contains a number of configuration parameters that can be used to
constrain the character composition of user passwords. What is one of the dangers of having password
composition too tightly constrained?
A. Password complexity rules apply only to the English alphabet.
B. The entropy of the resulting password strings will be very high.
C. Duplication of encrypted user password strings is much more likely.
D. Limited password value possibilities can simplify brute force attacks.
E. Passwords are harder to compute when using many character classes.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A security administrator is required to validate the integrity of a set of operating system files on a
number of Solaris systems. The administrator decides to use the Solaris Fingerprint Database to validate
configuration and data files as well as binaries and libraries. What command, available by default in
Solaris 10, will help the security administrator collect the necessary information that will be used with the
Solaris Fingerprint Database?
A. md5sum
B. digest
C. encrypt
D. elfsign
E. cryptoadm
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which option is used in /etc/vfstab to limit the size of a tmpfs file system to 512MB to prevent a
memory denial of service (DoS)?
A. size=512m
B. maxsize=512
C. minsize=512
D. swapfs=512mb
Answer: A

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NO.13 An Internet service provider is offering shell accounts on their systems. As a special service,
customers can also apply for a root account to get their own virtual machine. The provider has
implemented this by using zones, and the customers get root access to the non-global zone. One of their
customers is developing cryptographic software and is using the ISP machine for testing newly developed
Solaris crypto providers. What kind of testing is available to this developer?
A. The developer is able to test newly developed user-level providers.
B. The developer is able to test newly developed kernel software providers.
C. The developer can NOT test newly developed providers in a non-global zone.
D. The developer is able to do the same tests as if developing as root in the global zone.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are configuring a new system to be used as an intranet web server. After you have installed the
minimal amount of packages and patched the system, you added the appropriate web server packages
(SUNWapch2r and SUNWapch2u). By default, the web server daemon will be started using UID
webservd and the basic privilege set. To comply with the company's policy of least privilege, you need to
minimize the privileges that the web server will have. What will you modify to specify the privileges that
the web service will run with?
A. the PRIV_DEFAULT setting in /etc/security/policy.conf
B. the defaultpriv setting of webserverd in /etc/user_attr
C. the privileges property of the web service in the SMF repository
D. the privs property of the web service in /etc/security/exec_attr
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
You maintain a minimized and hardened web server. The exhibit shows the current credentials that the
web server runs with. You receive a complaint about the fact that a newly installed webbased application
does not function. This application is based on a /bin/ksh cgi-bin script.
What setting prevents this cgi-bin program from working?
A. The system might NOT have /bin/ksh installed.
B. The server is NOT allowed to call the exec system call.
C. The server should run with uid=0 to run cgi-bin scripts.
D. Some of the libraries needed by /bin/ksh are NOT present in the webserver's chroot
environment.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have been asked to grant the user ennovy, a member of the staff group, read and write access to
the file /app/notes which has the following properties: ls -l /app/notes -rw-rw---- 1 root app 0 Jun 6 15:11
/app/notes Which options will NOT grant the user the ability to read and write the file?
A. usermod -G app ennovy
B. setfacl -m user:ennovy:rw- /app/notes
C. setfacl -m group:staff:rw- /app/notes
D. usermod -K defaultpriv=basic,file_dac_read,file_dac_write ennovy
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Key Distribution Center (KDC) is a central part of the Kerberos authentication system. How should
the system running the KDC be configured?
A. It should be a hardened, minimized system.
B. It should be a hardened, non-networked system.
C. The KDC implementation employs cryptography and can therefore run securely on an ordinary
multi-user system.
D. For improved security, users must log in to the KDC before authenticating themselves, so it must be a
multiuser system.
Answer: A

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NO.18 A security administrator has a requirement to help configure and deploy a new server. What are two
security tasks that the security administrator should perform? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the server to use LDAP for authentication.
B. Configure network interfaces and routing information.
C. Install a DTrace probe to capture the use of privileges.
D. Disable any network services that are NOT being used.
E. Apply software patches to correct security vulnerabilities.
Answer: D,E

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NO.19 A security administrator creates a directory called prevoy with the following access control policy:
$ getfacl prevoy # file: prevoy # owner:
secadm # group: secadm user::rwx group::r-x #effective:r-x mask:r-x other:r-x default:user::r-default:
user:
sysadm:rw- default:group::r-- default:group:sysadm:rw- default:mask:rwx default:other:--- Into this
directory, the security administrator creates a file called secrets. The ls command reports the following for
the prevoy directory and secrets file: $ ls -ld . secrets drwxr-xr-x+ 2 secadm secadm 512 Jun 6 16:38 .
-r--r-----+ 1 secadm secadm
0 Jun 6 16:38 secrets Which two actions can be successfully taken by the sysadm role? (Choose two.)
A. The sysadm role can read the secrets file.
B. The sysadm role can write to the secrets file.
C. The sysadm role can remove the secrets file.
D. The sysadm role can create new files under the prevoy directory.
E. The sysadm role can change the Access Control Lists of the prevoy directory.
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Solaris Auditing supports the selective logging of which two kinds of events? (Choose two.)
A. file access by selected users
B. access to selected files by all users
C. selected users making outbound network connections
D. password changes which do not meet the system password policy
Answer: A,C

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NO.21 The company security policy now requires very detailed auditing of all actions. This includes capturing
all executed commands together with their arguments and the environment variables.
After activating auditing on all Solaris 10 systems, the security auditor complains about having to check
the audit trail on each individual host. He asks for a central place to capture all audit trails.
Using standard Solaris 10 security features, which is a solution to this problem.?
A. Configure auditd to send email with the events.
B. Configure auditd to send the output using syslog to a central loghost.
C. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using NFS on a central server.
D. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using LDAP in a central directory.
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which are two advantages of the Service Management Facility compared to the init.d startup scripts?
(Choose two.)
A. It restarts processes if they die.
B. It handles service dependencies.
C. It has methods to start and stop the service.
D. It specifies what the system should do at each run level.
Answer: A,B

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NO.23 Which two tasks does the Key Distribution Center (KDC) perform? (Choose two.)
A. issues service tickets
B. authenticates services
C. issues ticket-granting-tickets
D. validates passwords sent in clear text
E. provides private sessions to services
Answer: A,C

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NO.24 A security administrator has a requirement to deploy the Solaris Security Toolkit onto all Solaris servers
in the department. In this environment, there are a variety of platforms and operating system versions
deployed. Onto which two platforms and operating system combinations can the Solaris Security Toolkit
be deployed in a supported configuration? (Choose two.)
A. x86, Solaris 2.4
B. x64, Solaris 9
C. x86, Solaris 10
D. SPARC, Solaris 2.6
E. SPARC, Solaris 8
Answer: C,E

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NO.25 Which two commands are part of Sun Update Connection? (Choose two.)
A. /usr/bin/pkgadm
B. /usr/bin/keytool
C. /usr/sbin/smpatch
D. /usr/sbin/patchadd
E. /usr/bin/updatemanager
Answer: C,E

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NO.26 Within the context of file integrity, rules can be implemented to change the scope of the Basic Audit
and Report Tool (BART) manifest. Given the rule file: /home/bert/docs *.og[dt] CHECK all IGNORE mtime
Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. All files on the system will be checked.
B. The last modification time of all checked files will not be checked.
C. Key words such as CHECK and IGNORE can NOT be used in a rule file.
D. Only files with extension .ogt and .ogd in the directory /home/bert/docs will be checked.
E. All files on the system will be checked, except for files with extensions .ogt and .ogd in the directory
/home/bert/docs.
Answer: B,D

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NO.27 One of the operators of the mainframe group was moved to the UNIX group and tasked to activate and
configure password history. For every user, the last 10 passwords should be remembered in the history. In
what file is the size of the password history configured?
A. /etc/shadow
B. /etc/pam.conf
C. /etc/default/passwd
D. /etc/security/policy.conf
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have been asked to implement defense in depth for network access to a system, where a web
server will be running on an Internet-facing network interface. Which is NOT contributing to the defense in
depth?
A. running the web server in a zone
B. using svcadm to disable unused services
C. using IP Filter to limit which network ports can be accessed from the Internet
D. using VLANs on a single network interface instead of using multiple network interfaces
E. using TCP wrappers to limit from which system SSH be used to connect to the system
Answer: D

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NO.29 Due to changes to the security policy of your organization, access restriction must be applied to
systems. The changes specify that access to systems through the ftp protocol is NOT allowed according
to the Human Resources department, which has the 10.10.10.0/24 address space assigned. TCP
wrappers have been enabled for the ftp daemon, and these files have been configured: # cat
/etc/hosts.allow in.ftpd: ALL # cat /etc/hosts.deny in.ftpd: 10.10.10.0/24 Despite the implemented
configuration, Human Resources is still able to access systems through the ftp protocol. What action must
be taken?
A. The ftp daemon must be restarted.
B. The inetd daemon must be restarted.
C. The entry in the hosts.deny file is wrong and must be changed.
D. The entry in the hosts.allow file is wrong and must be changed.
Answer: D

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NO.30 A security administrator is required to periodically validate binaries against the Solaris Fingerprint
Database. While attempting to capture MD5 file signatures for key Solaris OS files, the security
administrator encounters the following error: digest: no cryptographic provider was found for this
algorithm -- md5 What command should the administrator use to help determine the cause of the
problem?
A. crypt
B. digest
C. kcfadm
D. openssl
E. cryptoadm
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-219

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )

Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

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NO.1 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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NO.5 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.9 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-151

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g: Build Applications with Oracle Forms)

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit.
Iin the Human Resources form shown in the Exhibit, you want to modify the prompts, heights, and
widths
of the Department Id, Manager Id, and Location Id Holds in the Departments data block.
What must you select before invoking the Layout Wizard in reentrant mode to modify these item
properties?
A. Frame5
B. Frames
C. Canvas4
D. the Departments block
E. the DEPARTMENT_ID, MANAGER_ID and LOCATION_ID items
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-151   1z0-151 examen   1z0-151

NO.2 You have a text item in your form named Object1. You want to create Object2 as an exact
duplicate of
Object1. You want to be able to change the properties of Object2. However if you change Object1,
you do
not want Object2 to change.
Which method of reusing Object1 would be best for these requirements?
A. Copying Object1
B. Subclassing Object1
C. Creating a property class from Object1
D. Putting Object1inan Object library
E. Referencing Object1ina PL/SQL library
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have created a complex menu structure with several types of menu objects. To which
objects
would you assign menu commands?
A. mainmenus
B. individual menus
C. submenus
D. menu items
E. all of the above
Answer: E

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NO.4 The Credit_Rating item in the Customers block of an Order Entry form must be restricted to
three
possible values: Good, Poor, or Null (the latter value indicates that the credit rating has not been
determined). Order entry clerks must be able to update this item to any of the preceding three
values.
You want to change the item to a check box labeled "Credit Risk" that should be selected if the
customer
has poor credit, the check box should not be selected if the customer's credit rating is good or
undetermined.
You change the item type to Checkbox, set other properties as shown in the Exhibit, and then run
your
form and insert three records: two with good credit and the check box deselected, and one with
poor
credit and the check box selected. You commit the data and query the records, with the following
result
set: The first two records show an undetermined credit rating, although your intention was to set
the value
to Good for these customers.
What change must you make in the properties of the Credit_Ratinq item to enable values of Good,
Poor,
and Null to be entered?
A. Change theinitial Value property to Good.
B. Change the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to Not Allowed.
C. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Value When Unchecked property to Null.
D. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Chock Box Mapping of Other Valued property
to Null.
E. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to
checked.
F. Change the item type. It is not appropriate to use a check box to enable entry and update of more
than
two valuesinan item.
Answer: E

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NO.5 The Order Entry application contains several forms. The inventories form uses an LOV that is
based on
a record group that queries the Warehouses table to return a warehouse ID.
Several of the forms use LOVs that are based on the same query. You decide to centralize the
creation of
the record group to the entry form of the application, which opens all the other forms, for example,
to open
the inventories form, there is a When-Button Pressed trigger on the inventories button with the
following
code;
OPEN _FORM ('inventories');
in a When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, you create the warehouse_rg record
group by
using the CREATE_GROUP_QUERY built in with the following arguments:
('warehouse_rg' , 'SELECT ALL WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_ID, WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_NAME
FORM WAREHOUSE order by warehouse_name);
You also populate the record group in this trigger.
What must you do to make this record group available to the inventories form and the other forms?
A. inthe When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, add a values for the SCOPE argument
of
CREATE_GROUP_QUERY.
B. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the end of the When-Button-Pressed triggers
for the
buttons that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated immediately after
OPEN_FORM is called.
C. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the beginning of the When-Button-Pressed
triggers for
the button that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated just before
OPEN_FORM is called.
D. inthe When-Button_Pressed triggers of the entry from the buttons that open other forms, add a
value
for the SESSION argument of OPEN_FORM.
E. inthe other forms, refer to the record group as: global.warehouse_rg.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which four types of variables must have their names preceded by a colon when they are
referenced in
trigger code?
A. PL/SQL variables
B. Form items
C. global variables
D. system variables
E. parameters
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 You want to display employee records in tabular format, but the form is not wide enough to
display all
the items in the Employees block. The employee IDs and names of displayed records should always
be
visible, but you want to scroll the additional information as users tab through the Items, the form
should
look like a spreadsheet with the first two columns frozen.
Which canvas types would be most appropriate in this scenario?
A. content canvasina window with a horizontal scroll bar
B. content canvas and multiple tab canvases
C. content canvas and a tab canvas with multiple tab pages
D. content canvas and a stacked canvas with a horizontal scroll bar
E. multiple content canvases
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are implementing a JavaBean in a form, the bean has no visible component on the form
when
invoked, the bean displays an input text where users enter a zip code, the bean has a single method
that
returns a short weather forecast for that zip code as a character value.
How can you retrieve that value so that you can display it to the user?
A. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_ITEM_EVENTina When-Custom item Event trigger, and then use that value as an
argument to the MESSAGE builtin.
B. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN as an argument to the MESSAGE builtintoinvoke the bean's method
and return the value as a message displayed to the user.
C. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN to register the bean, so that when the user enters a zip codeinto the
bean sinput text, the value is automatically displayedinthe bean area item.
D. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_EVENT_PARAMETERina When_Custom-item-Event trigger, and then use that
value as an argument to the MESSAGE built-in.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When tabbing through items in the Employees form, users should not be able to navigate to
the Salary
text item. If they need to update the item, they will have to explicitly navigate to it by using the
mouse.
Which property setting accomplishes this requirement.?
A. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = No
B. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
C. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
D. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = No
E. Automatic Skip = Yes
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Orders form has four blocks. The Orders and Order_items block are on the CV_Order
content
canvas; the inventories block items are on the CV_inventories content canvas; and Control block
buttons
are on the CV_Buttons toolbar canvas. All buttons have mouse Navigate set to No.
The Order_Items block is a detail of Orders. The inventories block is a detail of Order_Items,
showing the
stock of the selected product.
There is a button in the Control block with a When-Button-Pressed trigger:
IF GET_CANVAS_PROPERTY(:SYSTEM.cursor_item, item_canvas) = 'CV_ORDER' THEN
GO_BLOCK ('inventories')
ELSE
GO_BLOCK('orders');
END IF;
When you run the form and click the button, navigation does not occur, and the form displays the
runtime
error FRM-41053: Cannot find Canvas: invalid ID.
What should you do to correct this problem?
A. Change the sequence of blocksinthe Object Navigator
B. Chang the Mouse Navigator property of the button to yes
C. inthe first line of code, change the built-into GET_ITEM_PROPERTY
D. inthe first line of code, change the system variable to: SYSTEM.CURSOR_CANVAS.
E. inthe first line of code, change the CV_ORDER to lowercase
F. Chang the argument to the GO_BLOCK built-ins to uppercase
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Orders database table uses Order_id as its primary key. You have written the following
code to use
in the Orders block of a form:
SELECT orders_seq.NEXTVAL
INTO :orders.order_id
FROM SYS.dual;
Which statement is true about this code?
A. If you place thisCodeina trigger that fires when the record isinsertedinto the database, you will
likely
have more gapsinOrderIDs than if you use the sequence as a default value for the item.
B. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id hasitsrequiredproperty set to
Yes.
C. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id has its Database Item property
set to
No.
D. If the named sequence does not exist, it is automatically created the first time the code is called.
E. You should place this code aina database trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
F. You should place this codeinPre-insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
G. You should place this codeina Post_insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
Answer: F

Oracle   1z0-151 examen   1z0-151   1z0-151 examen

NO.12 You have created an editor named MyEditor, and you want it to be available to edit the text
item
Product_Description. You can associate the editor with the text item by setting the Editor property
of
Product_Description to MyEditor.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Oracle   1z0-151   certification 1z0-151   1z0-151

NO.13 View the Exhibit.
The Departments table in the database contains four columns. In a new form, you use the Data
Block
Wizard to add all columns to the block, but in the layout Wizard, you choose all columns except
Location_Id to add to the canvas. The Object Navigator and layout Editor appear as shown in the
Exhibit.
You then decide that you do need to display Location_Id on the canvas.
What object must you select before invoking the Layout Editor in re-entrant mode to make this
change?
A. the text item toolinthe Layout Editor
B. Frame 16ineither the Object Navigator or the layout Editor
C. Canvas4ineither the Object Navigatoror the Layout Editor
D. Location_Idinthe Object Navigator
E. the Departments data blockinthe Object Navigator
Answer: D

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NO.14 To avoid overloading the database during busy times, you decide to restrict the queries that
are
executed on the Orders form so that users query by either Order ID or Customer ID during these
times.
Which trigger is most appropriate for the code to enforce this restriction?
A. When-New-Form-instance
B. When-New-Block-instance
C. On-Query
D. Pre-Query
E. Post-Query
Answer: D

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NO.15 In Forms Builder, the iconic buttons on the form are blank, but when you click Run Form the
form
appears in the browser with Images in the iconic buttons.
What are two things that you can check to track the source of this problem?
A. forms Builder runtime preferences
B. the UI_ICON settinginthe operating system
C. the iconpath settinginthe Forms registry file
D. the UI_ICOM_EXTENSION settinginthe operating system
E. the iconextension settinginthe Forms registry file
F. the FORMS_PATH settinginthe Forms environment file
G. the classpath settinginthe operating system
Answer: B,C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-456

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment
mappings involving Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal
review, your company decides to no longer base decisions on industry. Your
supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations from the Fusion
Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and
selecting the Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that
already use Industry. Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function;
however no new assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function,
but the concept of Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would
continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a
resolution request. E. This can't be done; assignment objects can’t be set to inactive
if there is a mapping defined using the object
Answer: E

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NO.2 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can
create active territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the
validation process in Oracle Fusion Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range
of win probability and status.
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless
of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child
territory quotas to the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric
defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.5 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A, B

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-300

Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.2 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.13 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300 examen

NO.14 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

OMG examen   certification OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300

NO.16 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300

NO.18 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.19 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.20 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 50-658

Nom d'Examen: Novell (Service and support)

Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 To enable manual recovery from an abend, what value would you assign to the Auto Restart
After Abend SET parameter?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:A

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.2 How are file caching and the tracking of network resources implemented in the Novell Client for
Windows NT?
A.As a set of NLMs
B.As a virtual device driver
C.As a NetWare I/O subsystem (NIOS)
D.As a redirector/file system driver
Correct:D

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.3 When should the Novell NDPS gateway be used? (Choose 3.)
A.The printer is attached directly to the network
B.Users will be printing from 16 bit applications
C.The printer is attached directly to the file server
D.Users will be printing from different operating systems
E.The printer is attached to a workstation running NPRINTER
F.The printer manufacturer has not written a gateway of its own
Correct:C E F

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.4 What can be used to test for a break on a FDDI cable segment?
A.An MSAU
B.A flashlight
C.A volt meter
D.An ohm meter
Correct:B

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.5 A user complains that he cannot connect to the network. He receives a "File Server Not Found"
message. He had no trouble logging in yesterday. No hardware or software has been changed on
his workstation since yesterday. LANalyzer shows the Network Alarm indicator is red and the
scrolling message indicates a CRC error rate beyond the acceptable threshold. Sorting the errors
reveals the CRC errors are accumulating for several different workstations. Other users on the
same server have no problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A.There is a local cabling problem.
B.The network is severely congested.
C.The router is fragmenting packets.
D.The local router or switch is overloaded.
E.The file server's network board has a problem.
Correct:A

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.6 Which type of fiber-optic cable has the greatest bandwidth?
A.Dual mode
B.Single mode
C.Multimode graded index
D.Multimode stepped index
Correct:B

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.7 Perform the drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When you finish,
continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. The graphic shows the components of
the 6-Step Network Troubleshooting Model. Assemble the steps in their correct order by dragging
them to their correct location.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice6
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice5

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.8 A user cannot get a new application to print on a NetWare network even though the application
is advertised as network-aware. Print jobs that the user sends from the application are not arriving
in the print queue. These print jobs also do not print successfully from a workstation that is
attached directly to a local printer. What is the probable cause of the network printing problem?
A.The printer or its setup
B.The application or its setup
C.The print queue or its setup
D.The print server or its setup
E.The NPRINT or CAPTURE settings
Correct:B

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.9 What is the minimum twisted-pair cable specification for a 4 Mbps token ring network
installation?
A.Category 1
B.Category 2
C.Category 3
D.Category 5
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.10 When setting up mirroring in NetWare, what data storage unit is actually being configured and
mirrored?
A.Disk
B.Volume
C.Partition
D.Disk segment
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.11 The SYS volume of a NetWare 4.11 server will not mount so you decide to run VREPAIR. Which
step would you perform?
A.Run VREPAIR.NLM by loading it from the DOS partition.
B.Load MONITOR and set Automatically Repair Bad Volumes to OFF.
C.Add another hard drive to the server and span the SYS volume to the new disk.
D.Use MOUNT SYS /F to force the volume to mount, load VREPAIR, then dismount SYS and run
VREPAIR.
Correct:A

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.12 What are advantages of using twisted pair cabling in a network installation? (Choose 3.)
A.It is lightweight.
B.It is easy to install.
C.It uses mature technology.
D.It is protected from electronic eavesdropping.
E.It is insensitive to EMI (electomagmetic interference).
Correct:A B C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.13 A user complains of slow performance on his NetWare network. What type of bottleneck should
you suspect after viewing a large number of dirty cache buffers and current disk requests in the
MONITOR utility?
A.CPU
B.Bus I/O
C.Disk I/O
D.Network I/O
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.14 Which NDPS support service allows printers to send users and operators customized
notifications about printer events and print job status?
A.Printer Manager Services
B.Service Registry Services
C.Event Notification Services
D.Resource Management Services
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.15 A user's workstation hangs intermittently. You are assigned to work with him to resolve the
problem and have taken the following steps: 1. Checked user and system records to gather
information to assess what might be wrong. 2. Worked on the system to eliminate one possibility
at a time until the answer was found. 3. Wrote a complete description of the problem and its
solution in the system logs. 4. Explained the problem and its solution to the user. Observed the
user while he worked until he was convinced that the problem would not recur. How many of these
steps are an appropriate part of the troubleshooter's role?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.None
Correct:D

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.16 What are valid considerations when installing twisted-pair network wiring? (Choose 2.)
A.Consider using the same wire for voice and data.
B.Keep the twist in the wire up to the point of termination.
C.Never bend a cable tighter than a bend radius of 10 times the cable diameter.
D.It is recommended to use category 5 termination equipment on all catagory 3 installations.
Correct:B C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.17 You are installing a hard drive and have just created a DOS partition. What is the next step?
A.Copy system files.
B.Create a DOS boot sector.
C.Scan the disk and identify bad sectors.
D.Perform a high-level format of the partition.
Correct:D

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.18 Which utility do you need to run to activate a remote printer that is defined in PCONSOLE?
Answer:
A.RPRINTER
Correct:A

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.19 How many nodes can you install on a token ring network that is installed with IBM type 3 cabling?
A.35
B.64
C.72
D.127
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

NO.20 Which NDPS component is used to manage non-NDPS-aware printers?
A.NDPS broker
B.NDPS manager
C.NDPS gateway
D.Printer agent
Correct:C

Novell   50-658   50-658   50-658   50-658

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Code d'Examen: 50-888

Nom d'Examen: Novell (Cni-upgrading to netware 6.5)

Questions et réponses: 193 Q&As

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NO.1 After completing a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server in a multi-server tree, which
DSREPAIR operations should you run? (Choose 3.)
A.Import Remote Schema
B.Time Synchronization
C.Unattended Full Repair
D.Post NetWare 5 Schema Update
E.Report Synchronization Status
F.Designate This Server as the New Master Replica
Correct:B C E

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.2 If you configure Virtual Office to use the Logging to File option, where is the resulting log file
created?
A.SYS:\ETC\VO.LOG
B.SYS:\APACHE\VO\DEBUG.XML
C.SYS:\TOMCAT\4\LOG\VO.LOG
D.SYS:\ETC\VIRTUALOFFICE.LOG
E.SYS:\APACHE\WEBAPPS\NPS\WEB-INF\DEBUG.XML
F.SYS:\TOMCAT\4\WEBAPPS\NPS\WEB-INF\DEBUG.XML
Correct:F

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.3 Your organization has three regional eDirectory trees for each geographic location. One tree
runs on NetWare 5.1 servers; the others run on NetWare 6.0 servers. You've just installed a
high-end NetWare 6.5 server at your organization's headquarters and want to consolidate all the
servers in the disparate trees to the new server using the Server Consolidation Utility 2.5. Can this
be done?
A.Yes, the network meets the prerequisite requirements.
B.No, the Server Consolidation Utility 2.5 can't consolidate servers residing in different trees.
C.No, NetWare 6.0 servers can't be consolidated to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server Consolidation
Utility 2.5.
D.No, NetWare 5.1 servers can't be consolidated to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server Consolidation
Utility 2.5.
E.No, you can't consolidate servers of mixed versions to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server
Consolidation Utility 2.5.
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.4 You are configuring DirXML to synchronize three eDirectory trees: DA-TREE, EMA-TREE, and
ACMECORP-TREE. Data should flow only from DA-TREE to the other two trees. You want all
objects from DA-TREE, regardless of context, to be synchronized to a single container in both
EMA-TREE and in ACMECORP-TREE. How should you configure the eDirectory drivers in
EMA-TREE and ACMECORP-TREE?
A.Flat
B.Dept
C.Single
D.Mirrored
E.Subordinate
F.Consolidated
G.Authoritative
H.Bi-directional
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.5 You've configured a Branch Office system to use Automatic User Provisioning. When users
attempt to log in to the Appliance for the first time, authentication fails. The Appliance is running
on a server with 512 MB of RAM, a Pentium III 500 MHz CPU, and a 40 GB hard disk drive. The
users are using Windows 2000 Professional with Novell Client 4.9 installed. What is causing the
problem?
A.The Appliance requires at least 1 GB of RAM.
B.The Appliance requires a 1 GHz or faster CPU.
C.The workstation must be upgraded to Windows XP Home.
D.Novell Client 4.9 isn't compatible with Universal Password.
E.NICI must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login.
F.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login.
Correct:F

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.6 Where is the information entered in the Company Info tab displayed in the Virtual Office home
page?
A.In the Notes field
B.In the Company field
C.Under the About Us link
D.In the Company Info field
E.In the Company Contacts field
F.In the Company Press Room field
G.Under the Organizational Information heading
Correct:D

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.7 When performing a Default Installation of NetWare 6.5, which parameters are configured
automatically by the installation program? (Choose 2.)
A.Codepage 437
B.VGA video mode
C.4 GB SYS volume
D.4 GB DATA volume
E.Basic NetWare File Server patterned deployment
Correct:A C

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.8 Which files are created in SYS:\ETC when a server has been designated as host for the NSS
VLDB service? (Choose 3.)
A.VLDB.DAT
B.VLDB.NLM
C.VLDB.CFG
D.VLRPR.LOG
E.VLDB.CONF
F.VLDBCFG.DAT
Correct:A D F

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.9 Which NetWare 6.5 service allows users to find and restore deleted files without help desk
support?
A.iSCSI
B.DirXML
C.iFolder
D.Virtual Office
E.Archive and Versioning
F.Nterprise Branch Office
G.Novell File Access Protocols
Correct:E

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.10 What is the function of the rbsCollection object?
A.Represents a leaf object used for ACL assignments.
B.Represents a leaf object that holds a specific function.
C.Represents a container object that holds rbsTask and rbsBook objects.
D.Specifies the tasks that users who are members are authorized to perform.
E.Represents a container object that holds all RBS Role and Module objects.
Correct:E

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.11 An element of NetWare 6.5's Business Continuity Services is __________, which allows you to
configure a storage area network (SAN) using standard Ethernet hardware. Answer:
A.ISCSI
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.12 You are implementing a DirXML eDirectory driver to synchronize two trees. You've installed a
DirXML driver in one tree on a server that has a subordinate reference replica of the partition that
contains the objects to be synchronized. Another DirXML driver will be installed in the other tree
on a server that has the master replica of the partition that contains the objects to be
synchronized. Will this configuration work?
A.Yes, all DirXML requirements have been met.
B.No, you should never use a master replica on the DirXML server.
C.No, the replica types must be identical in both eDirectory trees.
D.No, DirXML requires a writable replica of the partition containing the objects to be synchronized.
E.No, DirXML should be installed only on a server in tree that will server as the authoritative data source.
Correct:D

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.13 Which password does the CIFS service on your NetWare 6.5 server use, by default, to
authenticate clients after initial installation ?
A.NIS Password
B.LDAP Password
C.Simple Password
D.Universal Password
E.eDirectory Password
Correct:C

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.14 You are planning a consolidation of two NetWare 5.1 servers to a NetWare 6.5 server. You're
using a Windows XP Home workstation with Novell Client 4.9 installed. Each server has the latest
Support Pack installed. Will this consolidation succeed?
A.Yes, the systems meet all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, you can't consolidate NetWare 5.1 servers to NetWare 6.5.
C.No, the Server Consolidation Utility is not compatible with Windows XP Home.
D.No, the Server Consolidation Utility is incompatible with Novell Client version 4.9.
E.No, you must uninstall all Support Packs from the source servers before consolidating them.
Correct:C

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.15 You're installing a new NetWare 6.5 server. The hardware you are using has dual PIII 1.13 GHz
CPUs, 384 MB of RAM, and a 40 GB SCSI SCA hard disk drive. Will the installation be successful?
A.No, NetWare 6.5 requires 512 MB or more RAM.
B.Yes, the hardware meets all prerequisite requirements.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 doesn't support multiprocessor systems.
D.No, NetWare 6.5 doesn't support SCSI SCA hard disk drives.
E.No, NetWare 6.5 requires an 80 GB or larger hard disk drive.
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.16 When installing products on a NetWare 6.5 server, what does the Apache2 Web Server and
Tomcat 4 Servlet Container product option do?
A.Installs an administration instance of Tomcat 4.
B.Installs an administration instance of the Apache Web Server.
C.Installs the Apache Web Server and Tomcat 4 for a dedicated web hosting solution.
D.Installs both a public instance and an administration instance of Apache Web Server and Tomcat 4.
Correct:C

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.17 While installing the Branch Office Appliance software, you are prompted to save the
configuration to a diskette that can be used later during the installation of other Appliances. If you
choose to do so, the configuration parameters are saved in a file named ______________ on the
diskette. Answer:
A.AUTOLOAD.NBO
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.18 Which command should you execute on a NetWare 4.2 server prior to consolidating it to a
NetWare 6.5 server to prevent compressed files from decompressing when accessed?
A.SET FAST VOLUME MOUNTS = ON
B.SET COMPRESSION DAILY CHECK STOP HOUR = 0
C.SET MAXIMUM CONCURRENT COMPRESSIONS = OFF
D.SET ALLOW UNOWNED FILES TO BE EXTENDED = OFF
E.SET MINIMUM COMPRESSION PERCENTAGE GAIN = 1
F.SET CONVERT COMPRESSED TO UNCOMPRESSED OPTION = 0
Correct:F

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.19 A server that accesses iSCSI shared storage is called an iSCSI _______________. Answer:
A.INITIATOR
Correct:A

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

NO.20 How is eDirectory used when Apache Manager is configured in Multiple Server Administration
model? (Choose 2.)
A.It is used as a database for storing Apache configuration parameters.
B.It is used to perform reverse lookups on requests coming from outside your domain.
C.It allows configuration parameters to be shared among multiple Apache Web Servers.
D.It is used as a repository for Open Source applets, allowing them to be shared concurrently by multiple
Apache Web Servers.
E.With partitioning and replication, it is used to provide failover functionality by distributing multiple
instances of the same web server among several NetWare 6.5 servers.
Correct:A C

Novell   50-888 examen   50-888 examen

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